Assume ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL Dumps PDF Are going to be The Best Score
Foundation Level ISTQB-CTFL Exam and Certification Test Engine
NEW QUESTION # 91
Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?
I) Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items.
II) Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.
III) Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.
IV) The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.
- A. I, Ill
- B. II, Ill
- C. I, IV
- D. II, IV
Answer: B
Explanation:
A decision table is a technique that shows combinations of inputs and/or stimuli (causes) with their associated outputs and/or actions (effects). A decision table consists of four quadrants: conditions (inputs), actions (outputs), condition entries (values) and action entries (results). The following statements about decision tables are true:
II, Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests. Decision tables can be used to test components that have multiple inputs and outputs that depend on logical combinations of conditions. Decision tables can help cover all possible combinations or scenarios in a systematic way.
III, Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table. A column of a decision table represents a unique combination of condition entries and action entries. Several test cases can be selected for each column by varying other input values or expected results that are not part of the decision table. The following statements about decision tables are false:
I, Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items. Decision tables are not related to risk level, but rather to complexity level. Decision tables are generated for test items that have complex logic or multiple conditions and actions that need to be tested.
IV, The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally. The conditions in the decision table represent both positive and negative tests, depending on whether they are valid or invalid inputs for the test item. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 4, page 42-43.
NEW QUESTION # 92
Your manager asked you when testing will be complete. In order to answer this question, you'll most likely use:
- A. Test progress reports
- B. A Test Oracle
- C. Your colleagues advice
- D. A conversion spreadsheet
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a manager asks when testing will be complete, the most appropriate and informative resource to provide an answer is test progress reports (Option A). Test progress reports contain detailed information on the status of testing activities, including what has been accomplished, what remains to be done, the results of the tests conducted, and any issues or risks that might impact the completion of testing. These reports allow for an informed assessment of the testing progress and estimation of when testing might be completed. Options B, C, and D do not provide the structured, detailed, and specific information required to accurately answer the manager's question about the completion of testing.
NEW QUESTION # 93
Which of the following is correct with regards to debugging?
- A. Debugging is often performed by test engineers
- B. Debugging is intended to find as many defects as possible in the code
- C. Debugging identifies the cause of a failure
- D. Debugging is considered part of the testing activities
Answer: C
Explanation:
Debugging is the process of finding, analyzing and removing the causes of failures in software. Debugging is not considered part of testing, but rather a development activity that can involve testing. Debugging is not intended to find as many defects as possible, but rather to fix the specific failure that was observed. Debugging is usually performed by developers, not by test engineers. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 1, page 6.
NEW QUESTION # 94
Which of the following statements is not correct?
- A. Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity
- B. Looking for defects in system requires professional pessimism and curiosity
- C. Looking for defects in a system may require Ignoring system details
- D. Identifying defects may be perceived as criticism against product
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Looking for defects in a system does not require ignoring system details, but rather paying attention to them and understanding how they affect the system's quality, functionality, and usability. Ignoring system details could lead to missing important defects or testing irrelevant aspects of the system.
* Identifying defects may be perceived as criticism against product, especially by the developers or stakeholders who are invested in the product's success. However, identifying defects is not meant to be a personal attack, but rather a constructive feedback that helps to improve the product and ensure its alignment with the requirements and expectations of the users and clients.
* Looking for defects in system requires professional pessimism and curiosity, as testers need to anticipate and explore the possible ways that the system could fail, malfunction, or behave unexpectedly.
* Professional pessimism means being skeptical and critical of the system's quality and reliability, while curiosity means being eager and interested in finding out the root causes and consequences of the defects.
* Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity, as it involves finding and reporting the flaws and weaknesses of the system, rather than creating or enhancing it. However, testing is actually a constructive activity, as it contributes to the system's improvement, verification, validation, and optimization, and ultimately to the delivery of a high-quality product that meets the needs and expectations of the users and clients.
NEW QUESTION # 95
Which of the following activities are part of test planning?
I) Setting the entry and exit criteria
II) Determining the validity of bug reports
III) Determining the number of resources required
IV) Determining the expected result for test cases
- A. I, II, IV
- B. I, III
- C. I, III, IV
- D. I, IV
Answer: B
Explanation:
Test planning is a key activity in the testing process that involves defining the objectives, approach, resources, and schedule of intended test activities. Setting the entry and exit criteria (I) and determining the number of resources required (III) are integral parts of test planning. Determining the validity of bug reports (II) is more aligned with test analysis or test management activities post-execution, and determining the expected result for test cases (IV) is part of test design. Therefore, options I and III (B) are the activities that belong to test planning.
NEW QUESTION # 96
In maintenance testing, what is the relationship between impact analysis and regression testing?
- A. Impact analysis requires a regression testing for only the tests that have detected faults in previous SW release
- B. There is no relationship between impact analysis and regression testing.
- C. Impact analysis requires a regression testing for all program elements which were newly integrated (new functionalities).
- D. The impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In maintenance testing, the relationship between impact analysis and regression testing is that the impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed. Maintenance testing is a type of testing that is performed on an existing software product after it has been delivered or deployed, in order to ensure that it still meets its requirements and functions correctly after a change or a modification. Maintenance testing can be triggered by various reasons, such as corrective maintenance (fixing defects), adaptive maintenance (adapting to new environments), perfective maintenance (improving performance), preventive maintenance (avoiding future problems), etc. Impact analysis is a technique that is used to assess the extent and nature of changes introduced by maintenance activities on the software product or project. Impact analysis helps to identify which parts of the software product are affected by the changes, which parts need to be modified or updated accordingly, which parts need to be retested or verified for correctness or compatibility, etc. Regression testing is a type of testing that verifies that previously tested software still performs correctly after a change or a modification. Regression testing helps to detect any side effects or unintended consequences of maintenance activities on the software product's functionality or quality. Regression testing can be performed at various levels and scopes depending on the impact analysis results. Therefore, in maintenance testing, impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regressiontesting to be performed.
Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 20.
NEW QUESTION # 97
How can testing contribute to higher quality?
- A. Testing help to measure the quality of software.
- B. Testing eliminates the risk with software.
- C. Testing ensures that remaining defects are documented.
- D. Testing removes errors in the software.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Testing can contribute to higher quality by helping to measure the quality of software. Quality is defined as the degree to which a component or system satisfies specified requirements and customer or user needs and expectations. Testing is a process of evaluating a component or system by applying inputs and observing outputs, and comparing them with expected results. Testing can help to measure the quality of software by providing information on its functionality, performance, usability, security, reliability, etc. Testing can also help to identify and report defects in software, which can lead to improvement actions and quality assurance activities. The other options are not accurate descriptions of how testing can contribute to higher quality.
Testing does not ensure that remaining defects are documented, but rather that detecteddefects are reported.
Testing does not remove errors in software, but rather finds defects in software behavior or quality. Testing does not eliminate the risk with software, but rather assesses and manages the risk with software. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 3.
NEW QUESTION # 98
A test score indicator for students produces a performance score based on a combination of the number of consecutive hours studied (below 4 hours, 4 to 8 hours. 9 to 12 hours or above 12 hours) and the average intensity of focus on the material during the study time (low, medium or high).
Given the following test cases:
hours intensity score
T1 3 low55
T2 14 high 95
T3 9 low75
What is the minimum number of additional test cases that are needed to ensure full coverage of all valid INPUT equivalence partitions?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Considering the various valid input equivalence partitions of hours studied and intensity, three additional test cases are needed to fully cover all valid partitions. This would typically include testing combinations that vary both the number of hours and the intensity levels not covered by the initial test cases (ISTQB Main Web).References:
* ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus v4.0 PDF
NEW QUESTION # 99
What type of testing measures its effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests?
- A. Integration testing
- B. Exploratory testing
- C. Structural testing
- D. Acceptance testing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Structural testing is a type of testing that measures its effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests. Structural testing, also known as white-box testing or glass-box testing, is based on the internal structure, design, or implementation of the software. Structural testing aims to verify that the software meets the specified quality attributes, such as performance, security, reliability, or maintainability, by exercising the code paths, branches, statements, conditions, or data flows. Structural testing uses various coverage metrics, such as function coverage, line coverage, branch coverage, or statement coverage, to determine how much of the code has been tested and to identify any untested or unreachable parts of the code.
Structural testing can be applied at any level of testing, such as unit testing, integration testing, system testing, or acceptance testing, but it is more commonly used at lower levels, where the testers have access to the source code.
The other options are not correct because they are not types of testing that measure their effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests. Acceptance testing is a type of testing that verifies that the software meets the acceptance criteria and the user requirements. Acceptance testing is usually performed by the end-users or customers, who may not have access to the source code or the technical details of the software. Acceptance testing is more concerned with the functionality, usability, or suitability of the software, rather than its internal structure or implementation. Integration testing is a type of testing that verifies that the software components or subsystems work together as expected. Integration testing is usually performed bythe developers or testers, who may use both structural and functional testing techniques to check the interfaces, interactions, or dependencies between the components or subsystems. Integration testing is more concerned with the integration logic, data flow, or communication of the software, rather than its individual lines of code. Exploratory testing is a type of testing that involves simultaneous learning, test design, and test execution. Exploratory testing is usually performed by the testers, who use their creativity, intuition, or experience to explore the software and discover any defects, risks, or opportunities for improvement. Exploratory testing is more concerned with the behavior, quality, or value of the software, rather than its internal structure or implementation. References = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, Chapter 4: Test Techniques, Section 4.3: Structural Testing Techniques, Pages 51-54; Chapter
1: Fundamentals of Testing, Section 1.4: Testing Throughout the Software Development Lifecycle, Pages
11-13; Chapter 3: Static Testing, Section 3.4: Exploratory Testing, Pages 40-41.
NEW QUESTION # 100
Which of the following options cover the test types performed during typical system testing phase:
I Usability
II Requirements based scenarios
III Testing parts of the code in isolation
IV Correct order of parameters in API calls
- A. III. IV
- B. I, Ill
- C. I. II
- D. II. IV
Answer: C
Explanation:
System testing is a level of testing performed to evaluate the behavior and quality of a whole software product or system. System testing can include various types of testing, such as:
I) Usability testing: A type of testing that evaluates how easy, efficient and satisfying it is to use the software product or system from the user's perspective.
II) Requirements based scenarios testing: A type of testing that verifies that the software product or system meets its specified requirements or user stories by executing realistic scenarios or workflows. System testing does not include the following types of testing, as they are more suitable for lower levels of testing, such as unit testing or integration testing:
III) Testing parts of the code in isolation: A type of testing that verifies the functionality and quality of individual software components or units by isolating them from other components or units.
IV) Correct order of parameters in API calls: A type of testing that verifies the functionality and quality of software components or units that communicate with each other through application programming interfaces (APIs) by checking the correct order and format of parameters in API calls. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 2, page 20-21; Chapter 4, page 34-35.
NEW QUESTION # 101
Manager responsibilities in formal review includes ad except one of the following:
- A. Planning the review
- B. Determines if the review objectives have been met
- C. Allocate time for review
- D. Decide on the execution of reviews
Answer: B
Explanation:
A formal review is a type of review that follows a defined process with formal entry and exit criteria and roles and responsibilities for participants. A formal review can have various roles involved, such as manager, moderator, author, reviewer and scribe. The manager responsibilities in formal review include all except one of the following:
Planning the review (correct responsibility)
Determines if the review objectives have been met (incorrect responsibility) Decide on the execution of reviews (correct responsibility) Allocate time for review (correct responsibility) The responsibility of determining if the review objectives have been met belongs to the moderator role, not to the manager role. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 3, page 28-29.
NEW QUESTION # 102
A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyer belts, add raw materials to the flow. etc.). Not all actions are possible at all times. For example, there are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is an emergency. A tester attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests.
Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?
- A. Statement coverage
- B. Data flow coverage
- C. Branch Coverage
- D. Code coverage
Answer: C
Explanation:
Branch coverage is a type of structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of branches or decision outcomes that are executed by the test cases. A branch is a point in the code where the control flow can take two or more alternative paths based on a condition. For example, an if-else statement is a branch that can execute either the if-block or the else-block depending on the evaluation of the condition. Branch coverage ensures that each branch is taken at least once by the test cases, and thus reveals the behavior of the software under different scenarios. Branch coverage is also known as decision coverage or all-edges coverage.
Branch coverage is suitable for testing the cases where a specific action is not allowed, because it can verify that the test cases cover all the possible outcomes of the conditions that determine the action. For example, if the program has a condition that checks if the manufacturing stage can be stopped, then branch coverage can ensure that the test cases cover both the cases where the stage can be stopped and where it cannot be stopped. This way, branch coverage can help identify any missing or incorrect branches that may lead to undesired or unsafe actions.
The other options are not correct because they are not suitable for testing the cases where a specific action is not allowed. Code coverage is a general term that encompasses various types of coverage metrics, such as statement coverage, branch coverage, data flow coverage, etc. Code coverage does not specify which type of coverage metric is used for the analysis. Data flow coverage is a type of structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of data flow paths that are executed by the test cases. A data flow path is a sequence of statements that define, use, or kill a variable. Data flow coverage is useful for testing the correctness and completeness of the data manipulation in the software, but not for testing the conditions that determine the actions. Statement coverage is a type of structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of statements or lines of code that are executed by the test cases. Statement coverage ensures that each statement is executed at least once by the test cases, but it does not reveal the behavior of the software under different scenarios. Statement coverage is a weaker criterion than branch coverage, because it does not account for the branches or decision outcomes in the code. Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, Chapter 4: Test Techniques, Section 4.3: Structural Testing Techniques, Pages 51-54.
NEW QUESTION # 103
A Static analysis tool analyzes a given program's CONTROL FLOW among other things. Which of the following options represents the most likely outcome of the control flow analysis:
- A. Identification of unreachable code
- B. Number of source code lines
- C. Number of comment lines
- D. Report on adherence to the coding standards
Answer: A
Explanation:
A static analysis tool is a tool that analyzes a given program's source code or executable code without executing it. A static analysis tool can perform various types of analysis on a program's code, such as syntax checking, data flow analysis, control flow analysis, complexity measurement, coding standards compliance checking, etc. Control flow analysis is a type of analysis that examines how a program's statements are executed in different paths or branches. One of the most likely outcomes of control flow analysis is identification of unreachable code, which is code that can never be executed due to logical errors or design flaws. Unreachable code can reduce readability and maintainability of the code, as well as increase complexity and size. The other options are not outcomes of control flow analysis, but rather outcomes of other types of analysis. Report on adherence to coding standards is an outcome of coding standards compliance checking.
Number of comment lines and number of source code lines are outcomes of complexity measurement.
Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 8.
NEW QUESTION # 104
Which test approach will best fit a new project, with little documentation and high probability for bugs?
- A. Exploratory testing
- B. Regression testing
- C. Requirements based testing
- D. Metric based approach
Answer: A
Explanation:
Exploratory testing is an approach to testing that emphasizes learning, test design and test execution at the same time. Exploratory testing relies on the tester's skills, creativity and intuition to explore the software under test and discover defects. Exploratory testing is suitable for a new project with little documentation and high probability for bugs, as it can help uncover unknown requirements, assumptions and risks. Exploratory testing is not requirements based testing, which is an approach to testing that derives test cases from documented requirements or specifications. Requirements based testing is not feasible for a new project with little documentation, as it requires clear and complete requirements to be available. Exploratory testing is not metric based approach, which is an approach to testing that uses quantitative measures to monitor and control the testing process and evaluate the quality of the software product. Metric based approach is not effective for a new project with high probability for bugs, as it may not capture all aspects of quality and may lead to false confidence or unrealistic expectations. Exploratory testing is not regression testing, which is an approach to testing that verifies that previously tested software still performs correctly after changes. Regression testing is not relevant for a new project with no previous versions or baselines. Verified References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 5, page 47-48.
NEW QUESTION # 105
Which of the following BEST defines risk level?
- A. Risk level is calculated by adding the probabilities of all planned risks to a project
- B. Risk level is calculated by dividing the sum of all known risks by the sum of all unknown risks
- C. Risk level is determined by the likelihood of an event happening and the impact or harm from that event
- D. Risk level is determined by calculating the absolute value of the sum of all potential issues that may occur on the project
Answer: C
Explanation:
Risk level is determined by the combination of two factors: the likelihood of an event occurring and the impact or harm that could result from that event. This approach allows risks to be prioritized based on their potential effect on the project or system. The likelihood represents the probability of the risk event occurring, while the impact represents the severity of the consequences if the event does happen. This concept is fundamental in risk-based testing and helps guide decision-making during the testing process.References:
* ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 1.4.1.
NEW QUESTION # 106
Which of the following is a CORRECT statement about how a tester should communicate about defects, test results, and other test information?
- A. Testers should include personal opinions and judgements in defect reports and review findings
- B. Testers should emphasize the benefits of testing, such as increased quality and reduced risk
- C. Testers should take a command-and-control approach with the project team
- D. Testers should reject all questions about their test findings and information
Answer: B
Explanation:
Communication from testers about defects, test results, and other test information should emphasize the benefits of testing such as increased quality and reduced risk. This positive framing helps in reinforcing the value of testing and ensuring stakeholders understand the contribution of testing to the overall project success (ISTQB not-for-profit association).References:
* ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0:
https://istqb-main-web-prod.s3.amazonaws.com/media/documents/ISTQB_CTFL_Syllabus-v4.0.pdf
NEW QUESTION # 107
Which sequence of stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting the life-cycle of a defect?
- A. S0->S1->S2~>S3->S4
- B. S0->S1 ->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4
- C. S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1
- D. S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0, the life cycle of a defect typically follows a sequence from its discovery to its closure. In the provided figure, it starts with S0 (New), moves to S1 (Assigned), then to S2 (Resolved), followed by S3 (Verified). If the defect is not fixed, it can be Re-opened (S5) and goes back for verification (S3). Once verified, it is Closed (S4). References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.4.3, Page 17.
NEW QUESTION # 108
Which or the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: An integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 15.
- A. Less than 0.1 through 14. 15 and more
- B. Less than 1.1 through 14. more than 15
- C. Less than 1.1 through 15. more than 15
- D. negative numbers. 1 through 15. above 15
Answer: C
Explanation:
Equivalence partitioning is a black-box test design technique where inputs to the software or system are divided into groups that are expected to exhibit similar behavior. For an integer field that should accept values from 1 to 15, the valid equivalence class is 1 through 15. The invalid equivalence classes are numbers less than 1 and numbers more than 15. Therefore, option D, "Less than 1, 1 through 15, more than 15," correctly identifies the valid equivalence class along with the two invalid classes, covering all possible input scenarios for the field. Options A, B, and C either do not accurately capture the valid range or incorrectly specify the range boundaries.
NEW QUESTION # 109
Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?
- A. Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system.
- B. Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality.
- C. Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.
- D. The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The testing of software does not demonstrate the absence of defects, but rather the presence of defects or the conformance of the software to the specified requirements1. Testing can never prove that the software is defect-free, as it is impossible to test all possible scenarios, inputs, outputs, and behaviors of the software2. Testing can only provide a level of confidence in the quality of the software, based on the coverage, effectiveness, and efficiency of the testing activities3.
The other options are correct because:
A) Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system, as they verify that the system meets the expected quality attributes and satisfies the needs and expectations of the users and clients4. Risk is the potential for loss or harm due to the occurrence of an undesirable event5. Testing can help to identify, analyze, prioritize, and mitigate the risks associated with the software product and project6.
C) Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities, as they provide feedback on the quality of the software and the effectiveness of the development processes7. Defects are flaws or errors in the software that cause it to deviate from the expected or required results or behavior. Testing can help to detect, report, track, and resolve the defects, and prevent them from recurring in the future.
D) Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality, as it can ensure that the requirements are clear, complete, consistent, testable, and aligned with the needs and expectations of the users and clients. Requirements are the specifications of what the software should do and how it should do it. Testing can help to validate that the requirements are met by the software, and verify that the software is implemented according to the requirements.
Reference =
1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 10
2 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 11
3 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 12
4 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 13
5 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 97
6 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 98
7 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 14
[8] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 15
[9] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 16
[10] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 17
[11] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 18
[12] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 19
NEW QUESTION # 110
An Incident Management tool implements the following defect states; Open, Assigned, Solved, Closed Consider the following defect report:
Id T000561
Test Object "Warehouse Management' application
Tester name; John Bishop
Date: 10th. April 2010
Test Case MRT558I
Status OPEN
Severity Serious
Priority
Problem- After inputting the Total Quantity item = 450 in the SV034 screen, the system shows an unexpected Error message=47 Correction:
Developer name:
Closing date:
Which of the following is a valid criticism of this report?
- A. There is no link to the applicable requirement (traceability)
- B. The description is not highlighting the source of the problem
- C. The Priority, the Correction description and the Developer name are missing
- D. The version of the application is missing
Answer: D
Explanation:
A valid criticism of this report is that the version of the application is missing. The version of the application is an important piece of information that should be included in a defect report, as it helps to identify which release or build of the software product contains the defect. The version of the application can also help to reproduce and debug the defect, as different versions may have different behaviors or features. The other options are not valid criticisms of this report. The priority, the correction description and the developer name are not missing, but rather not applicable for this report. The priority is a measure of how urgently a defect needs to be fixed, which can be assigned by the project manager or the defect tracking system, not by the tester who reports the defect. The correction description and the developer name are information that are added after the defect has been resolved, not when it has been reported. There is no link to the applicable requirement (traceability) is not a valid criticism of this report, because traceability is not a mandatory attribute of a defect report, but rather an optional one. Traceability is a relationship between two or more entities (such as requirements, test cases, defects, etc.) that shows how they are related or dependent on each other. Traceability can help to verify that the requirements are met by the test cases and defects, but it is not essential for reporting a defect. The description is not highlighting the source of the problem is not a valid criticism of this report, because highlighting the source of the problem is not a responsibility of the tester who reports the defect, but rather of the developer who fixes the defect. The description should provide enough information to describe what happened when the defect occurred, such as input values, expected results, actual results, error messages, screenshots, etc., but it does not need to explain why or how it happened. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 140.
NEW QUESTION # 111
During system testing phase of a word processor, a tester finds that on opening a file from a particular set of files, which are part of a critical workflow, the word processor crashes. Which of the following is the next step the tester should take poor to recording the deviation?
- A. Try to identify the code fragment causing the problem
- B. Try to recreate the incident before reporting
- C. Send an email to the developer and not report the bug
- D. Report the incident as is without any further action
Answer: B
Explanation:
An incident is any event that occurs during testing that requires investigation. An incident report is a document that records the details of an incident. The next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation is to try to recreate the incident before reporting. This can help confirm that the incident is reproducible and not caused by a random or external factor. This can also help gather more information about the incident, such as the steps to reproduce it, the expected and actual results, the severity and priority of the incident, or any screenshots or logs that can illustrate the incident. Trying to identify the code fragment causing the problem is not the next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation, as this is a debugging activity that is usually performed by developers after receiving the incident report. Sending an email to the developer and not reporting the bug is not the next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation, as this is an informal and unstructured way of communicating incidents that can lead to confusion, inconsistency or loss of information. Reporting the incident as is without any further action is not the next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation, as this can result in incomplete or inaccurate incident reports that can hamper the investigation and resolution of incidents. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 3, page 32-33.
NEW QUESTION # 112
Consider the following testing levels:
1) Component Testing
2) Integration Testing
3) System Testing
4) Acceptance Testing
Which of the following statements is true?
- A. Acceptance testing is applicable for all software development models.
Component and system testing are applicable only for the V-model. - B. All testing levels are applicable, independent of which software development life-cycle process (V-model. iterative, incremental) is used.
- C. All the testing levels are applicable to V-model for software development.
Only acceptance testing is applicable for iterative models. - D. Integration and system testing are applicable when V-model is used.
Component and acceptance testing are applicable when iterative development models are used.
Answer: B
Explanation:
All testing levels are applicable, independent of which software development life-cycle process (V-model, iterative, incremental) is used. Testing levels are defined based on the scope and objectives of testing, not on the software development model. Component testing, integration testing, system testing and acceptance testing are common testing levels that can be applied to any software development model, as long as they are planned and executed properly. The V-model is a software development model that emphasizes the relationship between each development phase and its corresponding testing phase. Iterative and incremental models are software development models that divide the development process into smaller cycles or iterations, where each iteration produces a working version of the software that can be tested and evaluated. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 18.
NEW QUESTION # 113
ST is a Software Testing organization which utilizes a testing knowledge base. Access to ST knowledge base can be either full or limited. Access level is determined based on ST certification and testing experience as follows:
1. If ST certified, with less than 5 years testing experience - allow limited access
2. If ST certified, 5-10 years of testing experience - allow full access
3. If not ST certified with 5-10 years of testing experience - allow limited access.
What would be the results for:
A - ST certified. 12 years of testing experience
B - Not ST certified. 7 years of testing experience
C - Not ST certified. 3 years of testing experience
- A. A - unknown
B - full access
C - unknown - B. A - unknown
B - limned access
C- unknown - C. A - full access
B - limited access
C - limited access - D. A - full access
B - limited access
C - unknown
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer can be derived by applying the given rules to each case:
* A is ST certified and has 12 years of testing experience, which is more than 10 years. Therefore, A does not match any of the rules and the result is unknown.
* B is not ST certified and has 7 years of testing experience, which is between 5 and 10 years. Therefore, B matches rule 3 and the result is limited access.
* C is not ST certified and has 3 years of testing experience, which is less than 5 years. Therefore, C does not match any of the rules and the result is unknown.Verified References: This question does not require any external references, as it is based on logical reasoning.
NEW QUESTION # 114
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