Updated PDF (New 2022) Actual SHRM SHRM-CP Exam Questions [Q88-Q107]

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Updated PDF (New 2022) Actual SHRM SHRM-CP Exam Questions

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How to study the SHRM SHRM-CP: Society for Human Resource Management Certified Professional Exam

Two types of resources could cover the preparation of certification examinations. The first are study guides, reference books and study forums, which are developed and suitable for information from scratch. Besides video tutorials and lectures, they are a good way to alleviate pain through the study and make the study process more interesting, although they demand both time and concentration. Intelligent candidates who want to develop a solid foundation of exam subjects and linked technologies typically combine video lectures with study guides, to reap the benefits of each exercise test or exercise exam engine, but are an important tool that most candidates usually do not notice. Practical exams are conceived with our experts to test their knowledge of skills, and to make prospects comfortable and familiar with the real examination environment. Statistics indicate that examination anxiety plays a much greater role in the failure of students than the fear of the unknown. The team of certification-questioners recommends preparing a few notes on these topics, so that you don't forget to practice SHRM SHRM-CP exam dumps, written by our team of specialists.


How to Prepare For SHRM SHRM-CP: Society for Human Resource Management Certified Professional Exam

Preparation Guide for SHRM SHRM-CP: Society for Human Resource Management Certified Professional Exam

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NEW QUESTION 88
Identify the components of the fourdimensional model of management.

  • A. audience, employees, responsibilities, actions
  • B. recruitment, performance, transition, responsibility
  • C. leadership, subordination, administration, facilitation
  • D. functions, roles, targets, styles

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation: The components of the fourdimensional model of management are functions, roles, targets, and styles. In this model, managers have six functions: training and development; persuasive communication; influence and control; forecasting and planning; personal area of expertise; and administration. Managers also have four roles: innovator, evaluator, motivator, and director. Managers have five targets: peers, subordinates, external, superiors, and self. Finally, managers have an indeterminate number of styles, related to the particular personality and approach of the manager.

 

NEW QUESTION 89
Which piece of federal legislation combined over seventy education and training programs into block grants that could be administered by the states?

  • A. Workforce Investment Act
  • B. Comprehensive Employment and Training Act
  • C. Job Training and Partnership Act
  • D. Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation: The Workforce Investment Act combined over seventy federal education and training programs into block grants that could be administered by the states. This act was passed in 1998 with the intention of giving state and local authorities more control over the delivery of federal resources. The act declares that funds should be concentrated on youth, adults, and the displaced, but the precise targeting of these resources is left to local groups in cooperation with representatives from the private sector.

 

NEW QUESTION 90
OSHA requires that organizations develop three types of plans that will ensure employee protection. Two of these types of plans include an injury and illness prevention plan and an emergency response plan. Which of the following represents the third type of plan?

  • A. Drug prevention
  • B. Environmental protection
  • C. Clean air
  • D. Terrorism response
  • E. Fire prevention

Answer: E

Explanation:
Explanation: The three primary types of plans that OSHA requires organizations to develop include an injury and illness prevention plan, an emergency response plan, and a fire prevention plan. Answer choice A is incorrect because OSHA does not require a drug prevention plan. Such a plan might fall under illness prevention, but ultimately a drug prevention plan is voluntary on the part of the organization. Answer choice C is incorrect because OSHA does not require an environmental protection plan. This too might fall under illness prevention, but it is not specified under OSHA's rules. Answer choice D is incorrect because OSHA does not require a clean air plan. Additionally, answer choice E is incorrect because OSHA does not require that organizations create a terrorism response plan.

 

NEW QUESTION 91
Which of the following is defined as pay provided for employees who must come into work beyond the scheduled work hours?

  • A. Geographic pay
  • B. Callback pay
  • C. Reporting pay
  • D. Oncall pay

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation: Callback pay is defined as pay provided for employees who must come into work beyond the scheduled work hours. Geographic pay is simply the pay scale that applies to employees in different geographic locations (ensuring that they receive a similar ratio of compensation, regardless of location). Reporting pay is defined as pay legally required whether or not an employer has immediate work available for an employee. Oncall pay is defined as pay provided for employees who respond to a work situation at short notice.

 

NEW QUESTION 92
Which of the following is not considered a voluntary benefit that employers may provide for employees?

  • A. Vision insurance
  • B. Life insurance
  • C. Shortterm disability insurance
  • D. Medicare

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation: Medicare is not a voluntary benefit; in other words, employers must provide it. Shortterm disability insurance, vision insurance, and life insurance are all considered voluntary benefits that the employer may choose, or not choose, to offer.

 

NEW QUESTION 93
Similar to question 122, FMLA applies to private employers with a minimum of how many employees?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation: FMLA applies to private employers with a minimum of 50 employees. The other answer choices - 15, 20, and 35 - are too low for the FMLA minimum.

 

NEW QUESTION 94
What was the founding idea of quality improvement, as espoused by W.
Edwards Deming?

  • A. Defects can be reduced infinitely.
  • B. Employees should continuously improve.
  • C. Design is more important than function.
  • D. The customer is the ultimate judge of quality.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation: The founding idea of quality improvement, as espoused by W.
Edwards Deming, is that the customer is the ultimate judge of quality. This simple insight, made in the early 1940s, radically changed the way business has been done thereafter. Before Deming, businesses relied on their own metrics and assessments of product quality. After him, they began to ask their customers about what constitutes quality, and make changes accordingly.

 

NEW QUESTION 95
Which of the following is defined as pay legally required whether or not an employer has immediate work available for an employee?

  • A. Callback pay
  • B. Geographic pay
  • C. Reporting pay
  • D. Oncall pay

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation: Reporting pay is defined as pay legally required whether or not an employer has immediate work available for an employee. Geographic pay is simply the pay scale that applies to employees in different geographic locations (ensuring that they receive a similar ratio of compensation, regardless of location). Oncall pay is defined as pay provided for employees who respond to a work situation at short notice. Callback pay is defined as pay provided for employees who must come into work beyond the scheduled work hours.

 

NEW QUESTION 96
How do corporations fund business operations?

  • A. Investments by partners
  • B. Bank loans
  • C. Sale of stock
  • D. Government subsidies

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation: Corporations fund business operations through the sale of stock. The purchasers of the stock are known as shareholders, and they are the ultimate owners of the corporation. They appoint a board of directors, which oversees the daytoday managers of the corporation. When a corporation is successful, shareholders are paid dividends. When a corporation is unsuccessful, the value of stock shares may plummet.

 

NEW QUESTION 97
Ron and Marcy apply for the same job at the Brown Company. During Ron's interview, the interviewer outlines the major responsibilities of the available position, and asks Ron a series of questions about his ability to fulfill them. Marcy's interview covers much of the same ground, but the interviewer asks different questions related to Marcy's unique educational background. Ron and Marcy have participated in

  • A. stress interviews.
  • B. structured interviews.
  • C. nondirective interviews
  • D. patterned interviews.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation: Ron and Marcy have participated in patterned interviews. This type of interview covers a predetermined set of subjects, but does not adhere to a script. In other words, the interviewer will know in advance what topics are to be discussed, but will not have a list of questions to be asked verbatim. Patterned interviews allow the interviewer to follow up on interesting and provocative comments, but the resulting interviews may be difficult to compare. A structured interview follows a predetermined list of questions. In a stress interview, the prospective employee is subjected to a very difficult or challenging situation. A nondirective interview is a freeform conversation that may range over any number of topics.

 

NEW QUESTION 98
The Age Discrimination in Employment Act requires that any employee records related to charges of discrimination must be retained

  • A. until the charges are resolved.
  • B. for two years or until the charges are resolved, whichever comes first.
  • C. for seven years.
  • D. for one year.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation: The Age Discrimination in Employment Act requires that any employee records related to charges of discrimination must be retained until the charges are resolved. Once the charges are resolved, records may be expunged. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act was passed with the intention of helping older people find jobs. It required businesses to declare any reasons for failing to hire older workers at an appropriate rate.

 

NEW QUESTION 99
Within how many days of a divorce or legal separation must an employer be notified to ensure COBRA coverage?

  • A. 15 days
  • B. 60 days
  • C. 45 days
  • D. 30 days

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation: In the event of a divorce or legal separation, the employer must be notified within 60 days. An employee may notify the employer well before this-as in 15 days, 30 days, or 45 days-but the employee has a full 60 days to notify the employer.

 

NEW QUESTION 100
Before a newly forming labor union may submit a demand for recognition to the employer, what step must occur?

  • A. Acquire signed authorization cards from employees
  • B. Meet with the employer to discuss alternatives
  • C. Establish a bargaining position for the union
  • D. Petition the NLRB for voluntary recognition

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation: Before submitting to the employer a demand for recognition, the labor union must acquire signed authorization cards from employees. This essentially provides an official statement from employees about their intent to unionize and lets the NLRB know that unionizing activity has support from employees. Petitioning the NLRB for voluntary recognition occurs next. Establishing a bargaining position and meeting with the employer to discuss alternatives are activities of the union itself, but they are not part of the actual unionization process.

 

NEW QUESTION 101
After a federal bill is voted out of a full committee, it is

  • A. scheduled on the legislative calendar.
  • B. sent to the opposing body of Congress.
  • C. sent to a subcommittee.
  • D. marked up by a subcommittee.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation: After a federal bill is voted out of a full committee, it is scheduled on the legislative calendar. At this point, it is expected that the bill has a reasonable chance of being passed by Congress. It has been thoroughly examined and marked up, and a complete report has been composed. This report includes all the pertinent information about the bill, as well as the arguments of those who oppose its passage.

 

NEW QUESTION 102
In which type of dispute resolution do both parties agree to accept whatever decision is reached by the third party judge?

  • A. constructive confrontation
  • B. ad hoc arbitration
  • C. compulsory arbitration
  • D. binding arbitration

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation: In binding arbitration, both parties agree to accept whatever decision is reached by the third party judge. Compulsory arbitration, meanwhile, exists when the terms of a contract dictate that any future disputes will be settled through arbitration. Constructive confrontation is a system for handling disputes within an organization, usually by dividing them into their central and peripheral elements. Ad hoc arbitration is a onetime dispute resolution aimed at handling one particular problem.

 

NEW QUESTION 103
Employers will typically use which of the following in order to protect confidential company information?

  • A. Nondisclosure agreement
  • B. Employee contract
  • C. Random searches
  • D. Lie detector test
  • E. Video surveillance

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation: Organizations typically use the nondisclosure agreement to protect their confidential company information. The lie detector test is only legal within certain boundaries, so answer choice A is incorrect. An employee contract generally binds an employee to the company for a specified length of time, but it does not necessarily protect confidential company information, so answer choice C is incorrect. Organizations utilize video surveillance and random searches to ensure that employees are performing their tasks appropriately, but these activities alone do not protect confidential company information, so answer choices D and E are incorrect.

 

NEW QUESTION 104
Which of these employees would not be classified as disabled under the Americans with Disabilities Act?

  • A. Recovering alcoholic
  • B. Heroin addict
  • C. Paraplegic
  • D. HIVinfected employee

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation: As long as a person is receiving treatment for alcohol or substance abuse, he is considered disabled. A person who relapses into alcohol or substance abuse is no longer protected by the ADA. A recovering alcoholic would therefore be classified as disabled under the Americans with disabilities act. People with contagious diseases including HIV are classified as disabled under the ADA, and paraplegics are impaired from "major life activities", thus making them disabled, as well.

 

NEW QUESTION 105
Which of the following does not fall under the Department of Labor's Safe Harbor provision?

  • A. Employer promises to add correct deduction policy
  • B. Employer commits to appropriate deductions in the future
  • C. Employer shows evidence of clear deduction policy
  • D. Employer pays employee back for incorrect deductions

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation: There are three primary scenarios in which safe harbor may be applied: the employer commits to appropriate deductions in future, the employer shows evidence of clear deduction policy, the employer pays employee back for incorrect deductions. The employer promising to add a correct deduction policy in the future is not considered part of safe harbor, however. The obvious problem in this situation is that the correct deduction policy does not already exist and is clearly not being applied within the company. This is unacceptable to the Department of Labor, and no safe harbor provision would exist for such an employer.

 

NEW QUESTION 106
In which business structure do partners exist mainly as investors, without much influence on daily operations?

  • A. sole proprietorship
  • B. general partnership
  • C. limited liability partnership
  • D. joint venture

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation: In a limited liability partnership, partners exist mainly as investors, without much influence on daily operations. This arrangement, which is also known simply as a limited partnership, is typical of professional businesses, like legal or accounting firms. A sole proprietorship is initiated and operated by a single person. This person is entitled to all of the profits, but is liable for all business activities. In a general partnership, the business operates according to a preset agreement, and liability is shared by a group of partners. The joint venture is a form of general partnership created for a particular purpose or a restricted amount of time.

 

NEW QUESTION 107
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SHRM SHRM-CP: Society for Human Resource Management Certified Professional Certification Path

The SHRM SHRM-CP: Society for Human Resource Management Certified Professional Certification is a SHRM expert certification that focuses mostly on quality control. Before you enter the SHRM SHRM-CP Certification you need to have two full projects in one or more areas of the SHRM Knowledge Body with a firm affidavit or a full project with a signed affidavit and three years of working experience. For more information related to SHRM certification track SHRM-certification-path

 

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